Historical origins of the concept of efficiency

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ocelot's picture
ocelot
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Jul 16 2013 13:32
Historical origins of the concept of efficiency

(I never know whether to put history of theory questions into history or theory forums).

We're familiar with the idea of "efficiency" being a peculiarly capitalist notion. But has anybody done any work on the historical emergence of the term/concept? I was thinking maybe in Ellen Wood's "Liberty and Property" which I haven't had time to read yet, or maybe Gerstenberger touches on it somewhere?

Any ideas on sources on the question of efficiency?

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Jul 18 2013 11:10

I've thought quite a bit about this because I had to teach a course where efficiency was discussed alot.

I don't think you really get it in classical political economy (Smith, Ricardo, Mill etc.) or even in early Marginalism (Jevons, Walras etc.)

For example, Mill talks about 'efficiency of labour' quite a bit but he seems to mean something more like 'productivity of labour' than efficiency. And this is the point, efficiency doesn't simply mean 'efficient at producing use values' or 'efficient and producing surplus value' it means 'socially efficient', where this 'social efficiency' only makes sense in a certain system of social valuation/meaning making.

So you probably already see where I'm going with this. Efficiency a concept with which we can make abstract valuations of productive processes really refers to 'pareto efficiency', which of course emerges in the form we know it now with Pareto. With pareto efficiency we have an absurd point of economics where the notion of utility is imagined as a perfect map of value onto all social life.

A nice little article on the madness of efficiency that I had some of my students read here: http://vserver1.cscs.lsa.umich.edu/~crshalizi/weblog/841.html

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Jul 18 2013 14:57

Perhaps in some of Jacques Ellul's writings you may find some clues. Technique is all about efficiency (and rationality).

Cooked's picture
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Jul 18 2013 19:18
georgestapleton wrote:
I've thought quite a bit about this because I had to teach a course where efficiency was discussed alot.

Capitalist physics or capitalist engineering? I sure hope future communist "engineers" will improve lots of efficiencies to help us use less energy and produce more with less work. (I'm aware it probably wasn't physics you were teaching)

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syndicalistcat
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Jul 18 2013 20:46

It's a utilitarian concept so you can trace it back to Bentham, James Mill, JS Mill etc. Efficiency is defined as maximizing overall benefit, minimizing overall social opportunity cost. In bourgeois economic theory of course the tendency is to define this in market terms. So, cost will be defined as market cost, benefit as revenue. It can be argued, tho, that the concept can be separated from its origin in pro-capitalist economic theorizing. Sometimes things are invented by capitalists that are of social benefit. This would require developing a concept of benefit, of cost, not defined in terms of bourgeois economy.

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Jul 19 2013 11:51
Cooked wrote:
georgestapleton wrote:
I've thought quite a bit about this because I had to teach a course where efficiency was discussed alot.

Capitalist physics or capitalist engineering? I sure hope future communist "engineers" will improve lots of efficiencies to help us use less energy and produce more with less work. (I'm aware it probably wasn't physics you were teaching)

Public Policy Economics.

Maybe I wasn't clear but although its obvious that efficiency has a general meaning. In economics the meaning is more specific.

But this isn't immediately clear because it is a general term that inverts a simpler logics and makes it a social logic.

Technical Efficiency

So a simpler technical logic is efficiency between input and output. So to use an example from Vol 1 of capital technological innovation can reduce the amount of cotton wasted in the spinning process thereby making it more efficient. This logic of technological innovation at this abstract level exists in any society.

However, in pre-capitalist forms of society the impact innovation was an increase in production of the means of subsistence. This was followed by an increase in the number of people subsisting. (i.e. any increase in productive capacity would be followed by an increase in population). Therefore there was no major incentive for technologival innovation.

Under capitalism this technological innovation doesn't simply take the form of an improved production technique. Rather it presents itself as the reduction in cost compared to that of a competitor. Thereby this reduction in cost allows the capitalist to both make at greater profit per product produced and capture more of the market and thereby increase the number of products sold. There is clearly a major incentive here for technolgical innovation.

Under socialism/communism, the impact of technoloigical innovation would be the reduction in the amount of labour required for the production of goods. This could either result in higher levels of concumption or, as is not possible under capitalism, higher levels of leisure.

Efficiency in a Capitalist Firm

What is important at the level of the capitalist firm then is not the product produced but the value of that product. So if a firm manages to hold costs constant, hold quantity sold constant and increase the price. That is an increase in efficiency. The profit's earned on an investment are higher, the capitalist has found a more efficient way of earnign a profit. I mention this here just to highlight how fundamentally different the logic of efficiency at a firm level is to transhistorical ideas of technological efficiency.

Ok I want to say more now on the difference between efficient at the level of a capitalist firm and a capitalist society, but I've wasted 30 mins and I have work to do. So I'l try to come back later.

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Jul 19 2013 16:25

Heh. Well we wouldn't want to stop you being efficient at work, George... tongue

Thanks for all the input guys, been useful.

With all the usual caveats about stuff gleaned from t'interweb not being proper research, as far as I've got is this.

The word and original concept of efficiency enters from Scholasticism's re-discovery of Aristotle (courtesy of Al Andalus, Averroes, etc), having the sense of "efficient cause" - one of Aristotle's four "causes", meaning - roughly - that which actively produces something (sculptor as efficient cause of the scuplture, etc).

Wiktionary (not the most reliable of sources) has the origin of the word in this original sense, as 1398 (wish they'd give source text, like OED...) which sorta fits. Same source also has the shift to the contemporary meaning of "productive, skilled" as 1787 which would fit with Cat's indication of Bentham and utilitarianism, which seems right to me.

The question of the link to the 15-16th C (?) notion of "improvement" (as mentioned by Ellen Meiksins Woods, for e.g.) is also open.

I guess I'm interested in the relative character of the concept - that is that an efficient use of a resource is always relative to something else. So the efficient use of labour is relative to the amount of means of production processed, for e.g.

So, in response to this

Quote:
Under socialism/communism, the impact of technoloigical innovation would be the reduction in the amount of labour required for the production of goods. This could either result in higher levels of concumption or, as is not possible under capitalism, higher levels of leisure.

I would say that's only considering the labour efficiency aspect of the technical process. Another important aspect would be the resource efficiency aspect - particularly in those resources that are, if not necessarily scarce in an absolute sense, are limited enough to make efficient use important (fresh water, fertile topsoil acreage, CO2 emissions, etc).

edit: should have added - agree with George that we need to distinguish between the technical relation and the social relation of "efficiency".

soyonstout
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Jul 20 2013 02:19

related, for many measures of efficiency, would be the transition to abstract uniform time, as opposed to variable time (equal number of hours in the daylight and nighttime whose lengths varied through the seasons) that Postone claims (chapter 5 of Time, Labor & Social Domination, especially p. 200-217) originated in cloth-producing medieval towns (many wove for export) and were introduced for weavers' workdays and also for travel times in shipping and trade and spread from there. Also, peep this by EP Thompson

RedHughs
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Jul 21 2013 01:46

On the issue of financial capital and efficiency, you might find this article interesting.

ocelot's picture
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Jul 22 2013 13:50
RedHughs wrote:
On the issue of financial capital and efficiency, you might find this article interesting.

It's an interesting article alright, but is a classic case of the fundamental problem of journalistic populism - i.e. if its a choice between telling a difficult-to-understand story about the real issues, it sells more papers to tell an easier, more familiar narrative that may only touch on the matter at hand, obliquely if at all. So in the NYT version the bulk of the article is the familiar "evil speculators in conspiracy to rip off the common man and Ordinary Decent Capitalists" (and of course, Goldman is the favoured representative figure for "evil speculators"). The role of Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) is only mentioned in the very closing paragraphs at the end, and then only cursorially. In fact, the reality is the other way around - its the ETFs that are the story here, the derivatives tail wagging the physicals dog once again (see also food). So for example, this quote from SEC passes off, almost without comment

Quote:
S.E.C. officials said they believed the funds would track the price of copper, not propel it[...]

When really the article should have been about the fact that not only is that position wrong, but pretty much everybody in the trading business accepts that generally derivative prices form spot ones, not the other way around. Of course this knowledge is "folklore", in the sense that term is used in maths - i.e. something which everybody accepts works in practice, even if there is no formal proof for it. Economic theory, oriented as it is to directing government and central bank policy, actually has little interest in theorising the knowledge of financial market practicioners - it's not in their (ideological) remit.

A more interesting, albeit still somewhat oblique, article on this story is the Reuters one from earlier in the week. Reuters: Under proposed new LME rules, long queues become short squeeze. It's more difficult to understand as its aimed at a trader audience, so employs language familiar to them ("backwardation", "borrow the spreads", etc). However it does bring out the complex and counter-intuitive effects of all that derivative leverage a bit better.

The other problem with the NYT take on the story is the (normal) US-centric focus in what is a global economic story. Trafigura, Glencore and Goldman & other banks have mostly been driven by the need to provide physical underpinnings for their ETF & other index and derivative products - themselves attempts to take positions on the flow of physical commodities into Shenzen and the Pearl River delta - the queue arbitrage game is kinda a side benefit here - and the LME has collaborated/is implicated in the game. Now the LME has been bought by "Hong Kong-based Investors" (*ahem*) to try and sort the problem out (or get a piece of the action, depending on the balance of forces) and the proposed attempts to reform the situation are producing wails of anguish and counter-regulation resistance from existing beneficients (predictable) and some whipsawing of commodity markets and spot and future prices due to unintended consequences (unpredictable - complex).

All of which is probably a diversion from the question of "efficiency" other than that only muppets believe that markets are efficient allocators of resources. In fact, I personally prefer to refer to the EMH as the Epilectic Muppets Hypothesis (with apologies to epiletics). But I think that's pretty much common amongst the anti-capitalist left of whatever stripe. What is perhaps less common is that these inefficiencies are not simple "external" conspiracies by (wicked) financial speculators to rip us all off, but are actually immanent systemic contradictions, stemming from the same operative mechanisms that make capitalism function at all.

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Jul 22 2013 15:01

Just on the commodities story

Quote:
[...]
US law allows banks to trade commodity derivatives such as futures contracts. In 2003, the Fed expanded this authority by granting Citigroup permission to also own the tangible oil, gas and grains underlying derivatives. Several other banks then received similar approvals through 2008.
These permits are now under question. “The Federal Reserve regularly monitors the commodity activities of supervised firms and is reviewing the 2003 determination that certain commodity activities are complementary to financial activities and thus permissible for bank holding companies,” the Fed said.
[...]
Despite complaints that prices of industrial metals have been distorted by banks’ warehousing units, there is less concern about those commodities at the Fed.

Though a full-scale ban is on the table as part of the Fed’s review, it is possible that different restrictions could be put in place for different commodities, according to people familiar with the discussions. Higher and differentiated capital charges are one option.

Goldman and Morgan Stanley have historically been treated differently than their rivals. The former two are allowed to own and trade around property such as power plants and oil storage tanks, a privilege grandfathered before they became Fed-regulated financial holding companies during the 2008 financial crisis.

Other banks must lease such facilities or own them as arm’s-length “merchant banking” investments to be sold within 10 years.

However, Morgan Stanley has warned that the Fed may require it to divest these properties as it approaches its fifth anniversary as a financial holding company.

FT: Banks’ influence over raw materials supply chain under scrutiny

Here again the complacent (and just plain wrong) assertion that the warehousing scam is itself the source of "pricing issues" in the metals case is raised here as a reason to ignore the effects of ETFs and derivatives - on grain pricing, for e.g.