some questions on marx regarding demand, supply, equilibrium and price

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xslavearcx
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Oct 30 2012 21:28
some questions on marx regarding demand, supply, equilibrium and price

I keep coming across that famous quote of marx regarding supply and demand where he states "when demand and supply are in equilibrium they cease the explain anything". I think this is often cited to show that the labour theory of value better explains the price mechanism than the marginal utility take on things. So i was a bit surprised when i came across this bit in Capital Volume 2, where he argues that capitalists by virtue of producing surplus value, will always create more supply than the demand they have for the inputs of production.

Heres a part of the section:

http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1885-c2/ch04.htm#2

Quote:
The capitalist throws less value in the form of money into the circulation than he draws out of it, because he throws into it more value in the form of commodities than he withdrew from it in the form of commodities. Since he functions simply as a personification of capital, as an industrial capitalist, his supply of commodity-value is always greater than his demand for it. If his supply and demand in this respect covered each other it would mean that his capital had not produced any surplus-value, that it had not functioned as productive capital, that the productive capital had been converted into commodity-capital not big with surplus-value; that it had not drawn any surplus-value in commodity form out of labour-power during the process of production, had not functioned at all as capital. The capitalist must indeed “sell dearer than he has bought, ” but he succeeds in doing so only because the capitalist process of production enables him to transform the cheaper commodity he bought — cheaper because it contains less value — into a commodity of greater value, hence a dearer one. He sells dearer, not because he sells above the value of his commodity, but because his commodity contains value in excess of that contained in the ingredients of its production.

The rate at which the capitalist makes the value of his capital expand is the greater, the greater the difference between his supply and his demand, i.e., the greater the excess of the commodity-value he supplies over the commodity-value he demands. His aim is not to equalize his supply and demand, but to make the inequality between them, the excess of his supply over his demand, as great as possible.

What is true of the individual capitalist applies to the capitalist class.

In so far as the capitalist merely personifies industrial capital, his own demand is confined to means of production and labour-power. In point of value, his demand for MP is smaller than his advanced capital; he buys means of production of a smaller value than that of his capital, and therefore of a still smaller value than that of the commodity-capital which he supplies.

As regards his demand for labour-power, it is determined in point of value by the relation of his variable capital to his total capital, hence equals v : C. In capitalist production this demand thereby grows smaller than his demand for means of production. His purchases of MP steadily rise above his purchases of L.

Since the labourer generally converts his wages into means of subsistence, and for the overwhelmingly larger part into absolute necessities, the demand of the capitalist for labour-power is indirectly also a demand for the articles of consumption essential to the working-class. But this demand is equal to v and not one iota greater (if the labourer saves a part of his wages — we necessarily discard here all credit relations — he converts part of his wages into a hoard and to that extent does not act as a bidder, a purchaser). The upper limit of a capitalist’s demand is C, equal to c + v, but his supply is equal to c + v + s. Consequently if the composition of his commodity-capital is 80c + 20v + 20s, his demand is equal to 80c + 20v, hence, considered from the angle of the value it contains, one-fifth smaller than his supply. The greater the percentage of the mass of surplus-value produced by him (his rate of profit) the smaller becomes his demand in relation to his supply. Although with the further development of production the demand of the capitalist for labour-power, and thus indirectly for necessary means of subsistence, steadily decreases compared with his demand for means of production, it must not be forgotten on the other hand that his demand for MP is always smaller than his capital. His demand for means of production must therefore always be smaller in value than the commodity-product of the capitalist who, working with a capital of equal value and under equal conditions, furnishes him with those means of production. That many capitalists and not only one do the furnishing does not alter the case. Take it that his capital is £1,000, and its constant part £800; then his demand on all these capitalists is equal to £800. Together they supply means of production worth £1,200 for each £1,000 (regardless of what share in each £1,000 may fall to each one of them and of the fraction of his total capital which the share of each may represent), assuming that the rate of profit is the same. Consequently his demand covers only two-thirds of their supply, while his own total demand amounts to only four-fifths of his own supply, measured in value.

It still remains for us, incidentally, to investigate the problem of turnover. Let the total capital of the capitalist be £5,000, of which £4,000 is fixed and £1,000 circulating capital; let this 1,000 be composed of 800c plus 200v, as assumed above. His circulating capital must be turned over five times a year for his total capital to turn over once. His commodity-product is then equal to £6,000, i.e., £1,000 more than his advanced capital, which results in the same ratio of surplus-value as above:

5,000 C : 1,000(c + v) : 20s

This turnover therefore does not change anything in the ratio of his total demand to his total supply. The former remains one-fifth smaller than the latter.

Suppose his fixed capital has to be renewed in 10 years. So the capitalist pays every year one-tenth, or £400, into a sinking fund and thus has only a value of £3,600 of fixed capital left plus £400 in money. If the repairs are necessary and do not exceed the average, they represent nothing but capital invested later. We may look at the matter the same as if he had allowed for the cost of repairs beforehand, when calculating the value of his investment capital, so far as this enters into the annual commodity-product, so that it is included in the one-tenth sinking fund payment. (If his need for repairs is below average he is so much money to the good, and the reverse if above. But this evens out for the entire class of capitalists engaged in the same branch of industry.) At any rate, although his annual demand still remains £5,000, equal to the original capital-value he advanced (assuming his total capital is turned over once a year), this demand increases with regard to the circulating part of the capital, while it steadily decreases with regard to its fixed part.

So, if that be the case, does this not mean that there can never be a situation where demand and supply enter into a state of equilibrium? Would this basic structural problem of excess supply create the conditions of crisis? What about the general neoclassical economic take that in such an instance the prices would just go down in order for demand to be effective for that level of supply?

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Oct 30 2012 22:05
xslavearcx wrote:
So, if that be the case, does this not mean that there can never be a situation where demand and supply enter into a state of equilibrium?

Well there can be, but that would be a coincidence and not the 'natural state of things' as neoclassical economics would have it (D. Snower talks of the present situation in Europe as an 'unstable equilibrium' so that term is quite stretchable too)

The Marxian conception of equilibrium is a bit different too, and it's a purely theoretical concept - the average rate of profit. It regulates the distribution and flow of capital (and thus, labor) from one branch of production into another, but profit rates fluctuate around it, usually with a falling tendency (which can be raised cyclically after crises but that's a bit beside the point). It's also different from the orthodox conception in the sense that this equilibrium cannot be attained, it always remains elusive.

xslavearcx wrote:
Would this basic structural problem of excess supply create the conditions of crisis? What about the general neoclassical economic take that in such an instance the prices would just go down in order for demand to be effective for that level of supply?

Overproduction as a precondition of crisis, well generally yes. Crises are crises of overproduction in the sense that capital is not able to accumulate further because the profit rate has been lowered so much that it's become impossible to expand (note that profits themselves can skyrocket while the profit rate takes a nosedive). But that is not an individual crisis, but one of the whole industrial sector. Their organic composition of capital has risen so much by ways of increasing productivity that reproduction on an increasing scale has become impossible.

And yes, prices would go down. In a crisis the least efficient capitals get weeded out (go bankrupt or get taken over), stock is tried to get sold at dumping prices (usually in a desperate attempt to realize as much surplus value as possible) etc. until accumulation can start anew.

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Oct 31 2012 16:04

BTW, In that quote from Vol. 2., Marx is using the terms "supply" and "demand" in what today seems a quite unusual way – in the sense of "value-supply" (how much value the capitalist throws at the market in terms of new commodities produced) and "value-demand" (how much value the capitalist withdraws from the market in terms of the means of production and labor power he buys). The "demand" in question is thus not the (consumer) demand for the commodities the capitalist produces, but for the commodities he as a capitalist himself buys in order to produce.

Now, it is clear already from Vol. 1 that "supply" in this sense must be greater than that "demand" (otherwise the capitalist would be doing simply M - C - M, and not M - C - M'). It is also clear from Vol. 1 that due to competitive pressures and whatnot, the capitalist cannot simply consume all of the surplus-value, but must reinvest it in order to accumulate (so that even if we consider both his demand as capitalist and his demand as "man about town", the sum of these two must be less than his supply as capitalist; if they were equal, then that would be "tantamount to assuming that capitalist production does not exist, and therefore that the industrial capitalist himself does not exist. For capitalism is abolished root and branch by the bare assumption that it is personal consumption and not enrichment that works as the compelling motive."). To be honest, I am at a loss as to why this confusing part of Ch4 is important where it is or why it was even included.

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Oct 31 2012 16:24

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Oct 31 2012 17:12

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Nov 9 2012 20:50

thanks for both those posts railyon and jura, they have given me something to think about.... I did find it a rather interesting usage of the terms supply and demand, since my acquaintence with them before has been on the old supply and demand curves that one encounters in the first few chapters of economic 101 - so this was quite novel.

I also agree that this text does not seem to follow logically from the preceding sections in chapter 4, but to be honest, i did find it a relief to read since chapter 3 and 4 up until that point of Volume 2 makes the most turgid parts of Volume 1 seem exciting by comparison.