Transcendental materialism? No, thanks!

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communistingoodfaith
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May 27 2010 11:44

I believe I already demonstrated precisely THAT point, that the brain's material and determining power over the subject as a whole are limited, that genetic AND external determinism are precisely not-All with regards to the subject.

You are only able to think the Real as Real, and not as also imaginary and symbolic. The Real of the body and the brain IS conflicted, leading it to this previously stated not-All.

However as Symbolic Real, we re-encounter the notion that the Big Other of the socio-symbolic Real is simply inexistent.

Nature as a whole is a mid-point between contingency and necessity.

Dark matter is an interesting METAPHOR for the Real, in that its existence is only deducible by its very absence. I don't think anyone here established a DIRECT correspondence between the Real and dark matter. The Real is the always existing gap in the realm of knowledge. Man is constitutively unable to know all. There are singular questions which have been around since the beginning of time which science will simply not be able to answer. But THIS isn't the point of our discussion.

Noa Rodman
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May 27 2010 22:47

Unfortunately the difficulty I'm having here is that Johnston does not agree with Zizek precisely on the points we're discussing, namely the status of the Real as material/ideal, and the way free choice works. For instance Zizek has a Schellingian free act, while Johnston a Sartrean one. I'm assuming you haven't figured out yet which of those you agree with but I guess you generally accept their Heideggerian overall frame. In any case I have shown the problems with both of them.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
I believe I already demonstrated precisely THAT point, that the brain's material and determining power over the subject as a whole are limited, that genetic AND external determinism are precisely not-All with regards to the subject.

I must have missed that, because all you did was claim that others have demonstrated it "scientifically". Again, if it's just a fact, there is no need for axioms. Clearly the facts don't demonstrate that the material structure of the subject is non-all. Before you run to the field of science for help again, stay within the domain of philosophy to logically prove the first axiom (non-all status of the onto-genetic base of the subject). I'm not against speculative philosophy, I'm against the bad philosophy of those whom Lenin named as 'degenerate chatterboxes who call themselves philosophers, flea-cracking university lecturers'. Frederic Jameson use of Badiou's more polite concept of 'anti-philosophy' is also appropriate.

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You are only able to think the Real as Real, and not as also imaginary and symbolic. The Real of the body and the brain IS conflicted, leading it to this previously stated not-All.

No, you brought up the brain, so I'm just talking about the Real there. Of course zizek's application of the Real is not limited to this field only.

The claim that the Real of the body "IS" conflicted is exactly what no Lacanian/Schellingian manages to prove.

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However as Symbolic Real, we re-encounter the notion that the Big Other of the socio-symbolic Real is simply inexistent.

Give an argument for your claims or do you think posting Lacan's word is enough? The fact that you "don't see a problem" with it or think it's "clear", is not an argument for TM.

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Dark matter is an interesting METAPHOR for the Real, in that its existence is only deducible by its very absence. I don't think anyone here established a DIRECT correspondence between the Real and dark matter.

Good, but you are still being obtuse; nobody deduced the existence of dark matter by its very absence, they couldn't explain certain observations so they created the idea of dark matter. It could well turn out to have the same value as the idea of ether.

Noa Rodman
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May 28 2010 10:57

For those that are interested, these links of a blog and article by Andrew Robinson and Simon Tormey (University of Notthingham) leave nothing standing in Zizek's work:

http://andyrobinsontheoryblog.blogspot.com/

slavoj zizek and lenin

Enjoy!

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revol68
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May 28 2010 11:12
Noa Rodman wrote:
For those that are interested, these links of a blog and article by Andrew Robinson and Simon Tormey (University of Notthingham) leave nothing standing in Zizek's work:

http://andyrobinsontheoryblog.blogspot.com/

slavoj zizek and lenin

Enjoy!

oh look it's some self important no mark academic wannabes trying to make a name for themselves by taking pot shots at the champ.

Noa Rodman
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May 28 2010 21:38

It's called peer-review, instead of your sucking on Zizek's thumb.

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revol68
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May 28 2010 21:43
Noa Rodman wrote:
It's called peer-review, instead of your sucking on Zizek's thumb.

a fucking blog constitutes peer review?

Noa Rodman
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May 28 2010 22:01

A Ticklish Subject? Zizek and the Future of Left Radicalism
Andrew Robinson and Simon Tormey
Thesis Eleven, Feb 2005; vol. 80: pp. 94 - 107.

They also appear to have published an article called 'Zizek's Marx', but the reference I couldn't find. The notes for the article are on that blog though, quite interesting;

Quote:
COMMODITY FETISHISM: This is by far the most important of Zizek's attempts to appropriate Marx, the only one which recurs regularly throughout his works.

In SOI, Zizek is actually critical of Marx's concept (which raises the issue of how he can nevertheless be claiming to use it). Following Alfred Sohn-Rethel, he claims Marx's concept of commodity-form shows an "abstract conceptual mode of thinking" involving a division between intellectual and manual labour (SOI 16). Sohn-Rethel claims quantitativisation is already present in Being (commodities) BEFORE it is present in science (SOI 17). The market is not based on belief in commodities but on acting AS IF falsehoods were true (SOI 18). Repression of the social dimension of exchange means it returns in the guise of instrumental Reason (SOI 20). Reality itself is ideological (SOI 20-1; cf. notes on MATERIALISM) and depends on its essence not being seen, so explaining it dissolves it (?!?! - dissolves it for whom?). However, Zizek endorses Marx's idea that commodity fetishism involves misrecognition of relations as properties of elements, because this fits with his broader, psychoanalytic concept of fetishism as misrecognition of relations as elements (Lacan on Kingship as property of relation, not the individual who is King) via a repression of knowledge of domination via naturalisation (SOI 24-6). He is later to become rather less open about how his concept of commodity fetishism differs from Marx's.

Zizek wants to remove the element of critique from the concept of fetishism. According to Zizek, Marx was not attacking present society's fetishism on the basis of what he saw as a higher type of belief or society, but was merely obtaining a critical distance from his own society by comparing it to 'primitive' societies (PF 99; I have no idea how Z. has deduced this from Marx). When he comes across Marx's critique of the naturalisation of socially-constructed qualities of people and objects, he accuses him of teleology and believing in progress towards the transparency of the social (PF 99-100) - issues which are clearly irrelevant here. The division between Zizek and Marx is very important here: Marx's hostility to fetishism relates precisely to the kind of assumptions Zizek is making, i.e. that ideology is an "always", active in the external world, which can be deduced speculatively.

Zizek wants to see the concept of commodity fetishism as describing how people are determined by the ideological structure of the world: not how people misperceive human acts as naturalised objects, but as how people act in line with the real, ideological structure of objects while seeing themselves as not believing in this structure. In contrast to Sartre's denouncement of anti-human formulations such as "tuberculosis harms production" (CDR ****), Zizek believes the social structure really does operate in this way.

Commodity fetishism in Zizek is about how an abstraction becomes "a direct feature of social life" (CHU 105 - minus the praxis whereby action projects abstractions into the world). The human agent is missing from Zizek's account entirely - a Universal becomes 'for itself' via individuals (CHU 105-6) who have no role except as carriers apparently. Universality according to Zizek rests on people feeling alienated and "out of joint" with a particular situation (CHU 106). Zizek here transmutes Marx's critique of capitalist alienation into Lacan's wholly different concept of constitutive alienation. The operation of self-becoming of the universal is experienced by those who lack a proper place in it as "an extremely violent move of disrupting the preceding organic balance" (CHU 106).

Zizek's reading of Marx on commodity fetishism is NOT that a commodity is a relation between people which seems to be a thing, but that while the bourgeois subject may think he/she sees it as relational, they must really think (on the level of fantasy) that it is a thing, since this is how they act towards it (FA 83-4). NB here, intersubjectivity goes missing; action is assumed to express INDIVIDUAL beliefs, and furthermore, to carry whatever meaning Zizek chooses to read into a particular action as 'what must be believed for this act to occur'. As if the 'objective significance' of someone's act is exactly what the system, or Zizek as observer, makes of it; as if this is the 'real' intent regardless of what actual people actually think. NB this is a recurrence of the Althusserian/Stalinist/Maoist principle of "unity of motive and effect": that the act 'really' involves an 'objective' belief or intent regardless of its subjective dimension.

communistingoodfaith
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May 29 2010 14:29

I already explained the specific modulations of the brain, cellular death, etc., which clearly demonstrate this propos. But why should I feel any pressing need to stay exclusively within philosophy, rather than interacting precisely in what conditions philosophy? The axiom is logical, because it's an axiom. Proving an axiom is a ridiculous farce in itself, if you want to remain in philosophy. Axioms for philosophy are precisely axiomatic in that they aren't something provable. However, I would say science does in fact provide a material basis for thinking this.

You can only prove logically in philosophy, which Lacan in fact does, based on pre-logical axioms; this is how continental and speculative philosophy operate. However, I'm more concerned with its scientific verifiability, which again, I've already shown how that's the case. I can repeat it again if you feel the need for it. The arguments for TransMat are, as far as I'm concerned, already there in science. It has nothing to do with Lacan's word. Quite frankly, I think Johnston is more interesting in making that bridge to science, and going to the very bottom, in terms of philosophy, of any existence of any Big Other, whether merely symbolic, or even genetic.

You are incorrect in terms of dark matter. It was based more on mathematics than any lack of any verifiable explanation. It deals with a mathematical remainder that couldn't be accounted for in terms of measurement, it is something which prevents any whole from being realized.

No one's sucking Zizek's thumb. You may as well say a Kantian is sucking Kant's thumb. It's a ridiculous argument, and if that's the line you want to pursue I don't see the point in doing this. And I would agree, a blog isn't a peer-reviewed journal.

Accusing Zizek of not being a doctrinal Marxist is fine and well, but to insist that he's not a Marxist, you would have to be clear on precisely what operational definition of Marxist you are working with, and I would maintain that it would be your definition where the argument is. Zizek doesn't agree with Marx on everything. I don't agree with Marx on everything. I don't think that's the definition of a marxist, especially when Marx made clear his own distance from Marxism as a doctrine. I think there IS a break in Marxism, several in fact, and I think those breaks need to be pursued. But I'm betting you don't buy the discontinuity argument either. I know for a fact that you have argued for Marx using Marx's own words, without any attempt at logic or argument. So try acting like an adult for the remainder of this "debate".

Noa Rodman
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May 29 2010 20:16
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especially when Marx made clear his own distance from Marxism as a doctrine.

That's a misunderstanding, it's been explained somewhere on these threads, can't bother looking though.

I haven't read the blog of Andrew Robinson (btw, some say he's one of the smarter anarchist thinkers out there, and I'd agree) fully myself yet, but there are some points that I've been making, for example about Zizek's reliance solely on assertion.

Also,

Hegel wrote:
Schelling often [...] sets up axioms. In philosophy, when we desire to establish it position, we demand proof.
communistingoodfaith
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May 30 2010 12:29

I'm not sure how that's a misunderstanding when he was quite explicit on that point.

Now you want to bitch to me about giving you things to read, and here you are attempting to get me to read something. Consistency would be nice.

And as for your final quote, axioms are not provable, it's precisely what makes them axioms. They are fundamental assertions prior to any argumentation.

Noa Rodman
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May 30 2010 15:48
communistingoodfaith wrote:
However, I'm more concerned with its scientific verifiability, which again, I've already shown how that's the case.[..]Axioms for philosophy are precisely axiomatic in that they aren't something provable. However, I would say science does in fact provide a material basis for thinking this.[..]The arguments for TransMat are, as far as I'm concerned, already there in science. It has nothing to do with Lacan's word.

Ok, you admit there is no proof in TM philosophy for it's claims, and you justify TM's axioms by saying that the science does prove them (Again, also, if that's really so, whence the need for axioms?).

However, transcendental materialists are not really so 'bold' to assert that 'science proves the axioms'. Your much weaker claim is that you are "concerned with scientific verifiability", that "science provides a material base for thinking" TM, that the "arguments are already there in science".

First, these are explanations of TM's methodology and it's areas of interest (here biology instead of e.g. Agamben's theology), not a claim to give proof for it's content. Second, it's a demand for the need for philosophy to busy itself with science, to which I'm sympathetic, but that's not a claim that TM's axioms are true.

Meanwhile, the elephant in the room is of course that there are no empirical criteria to verify metaphysical claims like the corpo-real, non-all, etc. status of the onto-genetic base of the subject.

Nevertheless, let's take your claim that science proves the axioms serious.

What would follow if science disproves the axioms?
In all likelihood you're still going to argue that the TM axioms hold for philosophy, where it's apparently okay to make pre-logical assertions (by the fiat of it being continental philosophy). So there is nothing at stake with this whole diversion on the thread to neuroscience anyhow.

That's why TM should be discussed as a philosophy and there we demand proof.

communistingoodfaith
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May 30 2010 18:45

I don't consider what were posited as axioms as necessarily axiomatic, I think it was perhaps a poor choice of terms. In my view, science does prove what were called "axioms".

The more primal fundamental axiom is rather, and you can call me a maoist throwback or whatever, the simple debate between one divides into two, or two fuse into one. If you're arguing against one, you are implicitly arguing for the other one.

However I think you're assuming a lot when you say "transcendental materialists are" or "TM's methodology - I'm not sure you're really talking about anything or anyone that exists. This is a new paradigm we're talking about, and I don't know about you, but I don't think there are that many involved in the debates around it.

My claim about scientific verifiability is based around the fact that science is a condition of philosophy, and we have to think through it. If you want to say "then you aren't a philosopher/marxist/etc." then don't bother, because that's not the point of the discussion here. Cerebral plasticity and cellular death do provide a way of thinking transcendental materialist theory. I do not think philosophy needs to simply busy itself with science, nor does philosophy NEED to busy itself with politics. But it DOES work under particular political/scientific/etc. conditions.

The point of cerebral plasticity points precisely to a conflicted "onto-genetic" base for the human subject. And this is built not in pointing to a hard kernel of the Real, but the very absence of it. Neither genetic nor cerebral NOR external features are capable of absolutely determining the subject. To me, that is evidence of inherently conflictual nature, hence one divides into two, and not vice versa.

Science I'm sure at this moment, or parts of science, DO refute these claims, but that is why we must think about philosophy as a "combat against corruption", in science as much in politics. The scientific debate surrounding these ideas I think, personally, would be more worthy of discussion than mere philosophical claims, which again operate within particular conditions. But that's a personal preference, not a statement of objective fact. I would add, lastly, that logic is itself axiomatic, and that shouldn't impede its use.

At a certain point there can be no argumentation - at a certain point it becomes a fundamental choice with no ground that offers proof. That fundamental choice is, again, one divides into two, or two fuse into one.

communistingoodfaith
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May 30 2010 18:46

Also, thank you for your renewed diplomacy. I will do my best to uphold it as well. However, I'm not a reader of Schelling, and that's simply an area of debate I cannot participate in until I have read it.

Noa Rodman
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May 31 2010 11:54
communistingoodfaith wrote:
The point of cerebral plasticity points precisely to a conflicted "onto-genetic" base for the human subject. And this is built not in pointing to a hard kernel of the Real, but the very absence of it. Neither genetic nor cerebral NOR external features are capable of absolutely determining the subject.

What is very clear with that last sentence is the tautological nature of Zizek's discourse (and your's, if it's any compliment, you really control all the Zizekian moves), because in TM terms subject=free will, aka the negativity of thought, and that is by definition not determined. Zizek's philosophical program/project is to 'think' about this, anything but radical, topic. The use of terms like the Real or cerebral plasticity also don't say anything, it's only jargon.

TM has nothing do with Marxism, dialectical materialism or even Maoism.

As can be seen in Johnston's letter to Zizek (in the latest Zizek Studies issue), the problem is that Zizek's notion of free choice is not free and that his notion of the Real is not materialist. In this sense Johnston is an improvement on Zizek, though still a very, very small advance (Johnston remains fully Schellingian/Lacanian).

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I would add, lastly, that logic is itself axiomatic, and that shouldn't impede its use.
At a certain point there can be no argumentation - at a certain point it becomes a fundamental choice with no ground that offers proof.

There is no reason to accept TM then except on Zizek's word.

communistingoodfaith
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May 31 2010 19:12

Then you'll need to define your terms. You say it's anything but radical, my reply would be, "So what?" What do you mean by radical? Because it only sounds like radical chic and posture to me. It's not new, that's true. You use the term Real, and yet you call it jargon. I don't understand how cerebral plasticity is jargon. Jargon actually refers to real things and concepts, so you're just dismissing it for no defensible reason. Had you done research on transcendental materialism, you'll see that it has a lot to do with dialectical materialism. They are nearly identical. I never said it had anything to do with Maoism. And if you want to say it has nothing to do with Marxism, then you, again, need to provide the operative definition of marxism you're choosing to work with, and why.

Again, I've provided numerous reasons why transcendental materialism is a worthy adventure, you're simply uninterested for personal reasons. But philosophy isn't about your personal taste. So why don't you reply with something substantial?

I don't see you raise the alarm when you expect other people to accept Marx on Marx's word.

Noa Rodman
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May 31 2010 20:45
communistingoodfaith wrote:
Then you'll need to define your terms. You say it's anything but radical, my reply would be, "So what?" What do you mean by radical? Because it only sounds like radical chic and posture to me. It's not new, that's true.

My point is that it's tautological to say that the subject with free will is not absolutely determined by external/genetic influences. The project of TM is to think free will, which is indeed not a new project and also not radical in any political sense, which is how Zizek presents it, hence my remark (which was not the main point). Also, this comes down to merely a program, not an explanation of anything.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
You use the term Real, and yet you call it jargon. I don't understand how cerebral plasticity is jargon. Jargon actually refers to real things and concepts, so you're just dismissing it for no defensible reason.

I used the term Real because that's what Johnston's criticism was about (unlike me, he still wants to reform the notion in a more materialist direction). The use of the concept of Real is obsolete in the TM axioms because it just means indetermined, while plasticity is not a concept from TM or Malabou, it's simply a biological term (this you agree).

communistingoodfaith wrote:
Had you done research on transcendental materialism, you'll see that it has a lot to do with dialectical materialism. They are nearly identical.

As I showed in the first post to this thread, Zizek does not say what dialectical materialism is, rather he redefines it to mean what he wants it to mean (his own TM philosophy). He only brings up dialectical materialism because of it's radical connotation or maybe it's authoritative status, but this doesn't matter, the point is that he could (and should) have just ignored the word and his presentation of his own philosophy would have remain unaffected and be more honest and probably also improved.
Sorry, but Lacanian theory has nothing to do with any of Marx's beliefs. This is not to say, TM is therefor wrong. Just that the two are incompatible. I'll explain in a moment.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
I never said it had anything to do with Maoism. .

I must have interpreted the following incorrectly then when you linked the core of TM to the maoist debate:

communistingoodfaith wrote:
The more primal fundamental axiom is rather, and you can call me a maoist throwback or whatever, the simple debate between one divides into two, or two fuse into one.

It's inappropriate to transfer this political Maoist principle into the field of the subject's ontology. This is an insignificant point though, let's move on.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
And if you want to say it has nothing to do with Marxism, then you, again, need to provide the operative definition of marxism you're choosing to work with, and why

I'm not sure defining marxism is necessary, just careful reading. Let me just post the conclusion of Robinson's essay on Zizek's Marx (from Historical Materialism, 2006, 3):

Andrew Robinson wrote:
There is therefore little in common between Zizek and Marx. Their critiques of
commodity fetishism are diametrically opposed. The ‘capitalism’ they define as their mutual enemy is a wholly different phenomenon in each case. Their ‘materialisms’ are two very different philosophies; their conceptions of revolution are almost entirely incompatible; their accounts of ‘class’ and ‘class struggle’ are at odds with each other; and their alternatives to the present differ wildly.

I would add Zizek's rejection of the labor theory of value as well. Also, 'dialectical materialism', as you know, is a term Marx never used. As for marxism's philosophical underpinning, recall Marx's eleventh thesis on Feuerbach (which Zizek openly rejects/revisions).

Btw, I don't expect you to read that blog, it's over a 100 pages dissection of everything in Zizek's work. Robinson did publish 2 key essays in peer-reviewed journals; the one on Zizek's Marx, the other on Zizek's Lenin.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
Again, I've provided numerous reasons why transcendental materialism is a worthy adventure, you're simply uninterested for personal reasons. But philosophy isn't about your personal taste. So why don't you reply with something substantial?

Indeed, but I asked not why TM is a worthy adventure, but why is it true. Worthy adventures seem to depend on personal taste.

communistingoodfaith wrote:
I don't see you raise the alarm when you expect other people to accept Marx on Marx's word.

Well, I never accepted this accusation, even so, it wouldn't make it right for Zizek to rely on Lacan's word or for you to rely on Zizek's word. I don't wish to revisit this episode but your accusation doesn't even make sense. If I state what Marx said and give his reasons, this is not yet an argument from authority. Nevertheless, if you think you "got" me here, well, I'm sorry but that's childish.

communistingoodfaith
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Jun 1 2010 17:06

I don't see how it's exactly tautological, it only depends on your rhetoric. It's a fundamental assertion that the subject is pure negativity. That's not tautology. This pure negativity is what explodes determination. There is the "minimum distance" between the subject and its relating. I think it's very presumptuous to say that the project and purpose of transmat is simply to think free will. Saying it's not radical is just a rhetorical device, and I don't know that Zizek presents it as being radical. It's certainly a divergence for dialectical materialism.

To say the concept of Real is obsolete in TransMat axioms because it just means determined, again, is just a simplified and reductive reading of the Real. Plasticity is a concept from Malabou, but she's not the first to talk about it, that's true. And she actually uses it primarily as a philosophical and NOT biological concept. There was ONE venture she made into biology.

Zizek doesn't say what dialectical materialism is. And? But how can you say he doesn't say what it is and yet redefines it to mean something else, when those would be mutually exclusive. I have yet to see DiaMat brought up as being radical or authoritative by any of these previous mentioned authors. This is just more rhetoric on YOUR part, not theirs.

Lacanian theory doesn't have anything to do, in itself, with anything in Marx. However other philosophers successfully link up Lacanian psychoanalysis and contemporary Marxism, in ways you clearly don't think are successful, but I would disagree. I don't see this incompatibility you claim to be explaining.

The Maoist principle of dialectical materialism isn't at all simply a POLITICAL maoist principle at all. Nor is it presently as being merely political, sorry.

Defining marxism IS necessary, and it seems you're incapable of doing so. Many marxists disagree on the definition and conceptual apparatus around Marxism, so it's very necessary actually.

Perhaps. concerning Robinson's quotation, that they are opposed. So far, I don't see the evidence of it. And if that's true, I would argue that Zizek's are an improvement over Marx's. But I don't see how that's the case. As for the labor theory of value, it simply hasn't been applicable for the good part of a century already. And it's metaphysics any how. Someone like Althusser seems to categorically reject revolution anyhow, but he's still Marxist, no?

Zizek doesn't simply reject this one thesis on Feuerbach. His point is that there is no proper conceptual apparatus yet for understanding the organization of present world processes. Here, Marx himself is simply insufficient.

As for true, you'd have to way your options. I can't see a logical difficulty, especially given speculative/continental philosophy's ultimately axiomatic nature.

And you, what's your conceptual apparatus? You've been entirely negative throughout this entire debate. So what are you actually putting forward? Straight Leninism? Trotskyism? Do you simply want to repeat Lenin, move for move?

Noa Rodman
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Jun 2 2010 12:47

I'm not accusing you of shifting the topic or raising unimportant issues, however I want to return to the topic of this thread. Earlier you agreed that I'm right to focus on the first axiom of TM.

The problem with TM is that the first axiom is made SOLELY in order to account for the second axiom, which is what Zizek basically says in the introduction to the Parallax View. Without asserting the gap [..] as inherent to humanity itself, as the gap between humanity and its own inhuman excess (first axiom) you cannot properly account for how the gap between thought and being emerges (second axiom).

The argument for positing the first axiom is the need of confirming the second axiom. This is begging the question; you first need to prove (i.e. argue) the first axiom, only then can you go on to make the second axiom. There is no solid argument for the first axiom, hence a second axiom can't follow. TM falls down on its own accord.

You said discussion was possible about the axioms; that there were arguments thrown for it again and again. Yet, at the same time you say there aren't any arguments because they are axioms, and you hide behind the authority of continental philosophy to dismiss my objections. Next you raise the self-contradicting claim how science proves these axioms of TM. I'm gonna have to be brutal again, is there any reason for believing in TM's axioms?

communistingoodfaith
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Jun 2 2010 15:45

Fine.

I said that they weren't really axiomatic. The proof I choose to offer is scientific. You're asking for philosophical proof? I don't know enough Schelling to give you adequate proof for Schelling. I would argue the scientific - that there is a lack of genetic and cerebral programming, and this lack becomes corollary to the excess which IS the subject, the mediating agent between internal and external factors.

I told you before I thought "axiom" in that argument was a bad choice of words, as I would argue the more fundamental and therefore non-argumentable axiom is either one divides into two, or two fuse into one, whether you lie on the side of consistency or inconsistency. This is the axiom, and this is the axiom which remains unprovable. Is there no argument in philosophy? I'm sure it could be argued otherwise, though not by me. Again, i would say you would argue the "axiom" scientifically.

Calling them axioms as Zizek or Johnston does doesn't suffice. And I'm not hiding behind speculative philosophy, I'm IN speculative philosophy. If you want provable foundations, then analytic philosophy might be more to your liking. I don't see how it's self-contradictory to say that science proves the "axioms".

Ultimately, in terms of the fundamental contradiction I highlighted earlier, there is no reason for believing in TransMat. It's a choice without any basis or foundation, and you simply choose one side or the other.

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terminusmundi
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Jun 2 2010 19:25

"The problem with TM is that the first axiom is made SOLELY in order to account for the second axiom, which is what Zizek basically says in the introduction to the Parallax View. Without asserting the gap [..] as inherent to humanity itself, as the gap between humanity and its own inhuman excess (first axiom) you cannot properly account for how the gap between thought and being emerges (second axiom)."

By (1) preforming various actions, we make a situation that affects our (2) thoughts.

This is nothing that requires philosophy - this is not even in the sphere of philosophy - it is a reiteration of Marx. The word transcendental is not used metaphysically.

A man alone needs food - for him food has "use value." A man situated in a group must demand food since we now need to know who has the right to have their needs met. "Exchange value" and money enter into the constellation of ideas that include "comodity fetishism" - so we have entered a real/actual transcendence of the given/natural use value situation - the problem is that we take this situation as a given/natural one and forget it was man made by us ourselves and so enter a kind of denial/false consciousness or ideological mystification.

Noa Rodman
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Jun 3 2010 21:46

There is speculative philosophy and then there is speculative philosophy. As I showed with the quote from Hegel, he doesn't accept axioms in philosophy, so that shows the limited extent of Zizek's Hegelianism.

Obviously dialectical materialists don't accept axioms in philosophy either (e.g. Engels's Anti-Duhring).

You claim logic is based on axioms so it's okay to use axioms. Also you say that if I want provable foundations I should go to Analytic philosophy, but wait a minute (as Zizek would say), I don't know much about analytic philosophy, but isn't it based precisely on things like logic? My point is that yes, you can use axioms in logic, but not for ontological claims like Zizek does.

As for Schelling, you don't have to know his thought to defend the TM-theses. I don't know if TM is really based on Schelling as Zizek likes to claim because Peter Dews has argued Zizek misreads Schelling (and German Idealism), so it's safer to assume for the moment that TM is based on Zizek's version of Schelling.

Quote:
I would argue the scientific - that there is a lack of genetic and cerebral programming, and this lack becomes corollary to the excess which IS the subject, the mediating agent between internal and external factors.

I'm not really asking scientific proof as it's impossible to verify the (corpo-)Real. Do you agree that you're not really claiming science proves the TM-theses, but instead make the much weaker and programmatic point that science is the "material base" for thinking them? Hence, you don't care about scientific verifiability, because you say some parts of science go against TM and yet insist on fighting for TM despite this.

I don't know where Zizek/Johnston claim the Real (first axiom) is similar to Mao's One divides into Two, so I think that's interpretation on your part. If there no reason to chose between One divides into Two and Two fuse into One, why did YOU chose TM?

communistingoodfaith
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Jun 4 2010 11:39

Hegel DOES accept axioms in philosophy. The subject as fundamental negativity is axiomatic, unless you have another explanation. Speculative philosophy, again, sorry, relies on axioms. That's how it works. The axioms are logical, their basis is groundless. That's how they work. Tough.

So far, scientifically, I don't see how it's impossible to verify the Real in terms of lack. I've shown how again and again and again. So I don't see this imaginary disagreement. I am very much claiming science verifies certain principles of TransMat, that's precisely what I'm doing. I do concern myself with scientific verifiability. What you're missing is that science is OPEN. Some people might argue against it. But that doesn't really mean one thing or the other. Some scientists believe in God, some don't. Some scientists believe the Hadron collider will destroy our universe, some don't. I've merely chosen sides. This says nothing for scientific verifiability. It says more for the struggle against corruption in philosophy itself.

Again, please read. I never said either Zizek or Johnston claim the Real is similar to Mao's one divides into two. Never, not once did I say that. Nor is it interpretation. That is the axiomatic decision that one will make sooner or later. I have simply chosen to move on the side of inconsistency against consistency, because I have much more interest in its struggle. I chose TransMat because it accounts for negativity, subjectivity, and freedom. You don't think it does, I get that. But I do. My understanding of TransMat is very simple. This relachement of cerebral or genetic data creates a fundamental and transcendental condition for freedom where the (human) subject is not wholly determined by internal or external nature, and whose freedom relies precisely in their relating to relating. In fact, the subject can't be NOT free even as much as it wants to. It is ultimately troubled by its own innate freedom, and therefore the only way for the subject to be submitted is by abdicating his own freedom. Science here DOES bear me out. There is a lack of genetic programming, a lack of any natural mandate. Sorry, that's just how it is.

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terminusmundi
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Jun 4 2010 21:07

http://www.bu.edu/wcp/Papers/Valu/ValuLend.htm

"He would not arrive at the Real, without first presupposing there exists such a thing as the Symbolic."

The symbolic is not a mythical dimension. It just means what we see as people in culture that would be meaningless to a rabbit or a bear - like a police man's uniform or the emperor's new clothes.

This whole thread is a long woeful misunderstanding of the material.

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terminusmundi
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Jun 4 2010 21:44

http://www.iep.utm.edu/zizek/#H4

Zizek is always only dealing with physical theory - he never enters philosophy.

"The subject is not a special type of Thing outside of the phenomenal reality we can experience, for Zizek. As we saw in 1, e above, such an idea would in fact reproduce in philosophy the type of thinking which he argues characterises political ideologies, and the subject’s fundamental fantasy. (see 3a) It is more like a fold or crease in the surface of this reality as Zizek puts it in Tarrying With the Negative, the point within the substance of reality wherein that substance is able to look at itself, and see itself as alien to itself."

Zizek loves to piggy back his theory on physics and has done so for decades - this "fold or crease" is the same that we are told by physicists may be the extra-dimensional space where "gravity is hiding" - a space or fold posited as less then the size of an atom.

Noa Rodman
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Jun 4 2010 23:43
Quote:
I chose TransMat because it accounts for negativity, subjectivity, and freedom. You don't think it does, I get that.

The very fact that you chose TM and theorize about negativity shows that humans have free choice and consciousness. So to account for the possibility (I think this is where the transcendental comes from, i.e. the genesis) of consciousness, in whatever philosophical way, in the case of TM by making the claim that the corpo-Real material is non-all, is a problem I'm not worried about (and Zizek gives no reason why we should worry).

But let me accept Zizek's problematic and follow his point to the end. If there is really a missing mandate in nature as Zizek claims, there would be no freedom, as, according to that famous dialectical materialist slogan, freedom is the recognition of necessity, so if nature is non-all, there is no necessity, no determinism in it, it becomes impossible to chose a course of action (the subject loses the ground from under its feet, so to speak). This is also why for TM freedom means in fact horrible anxiety.

communistingoodfaith
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Jun 5 2010 01:09

I'll forgo Terminus for right now.

The Zizek you're referring to isn't saying freedom is a necessary choice, or merely the recognition of necessity. This refers to a particular stage, not to freedom as a whole. I don't think the dialectical materialist slogan is freedom is the recognition of necessity. I think when you're talking about the subject choosing himself, it is here that you find freedom as the recognition of necessity, but he's not speaking of freedom tout court.

Freedom can mean anxiety, this is the anxiety Sartre often moves along, but it can also mean courage as well. There is a terror to freedom, absolutely, can't do without it.

Noa Rodman
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Jun 5 2010 10:12

I meant that the slogan 'freedom is the recognition of necessity' gives you the possibility for freedom. It's a simple dialectic, where determinism is the basis for freedom. This is one of the key points of dialectical materialism, and the problem is, I argue, that Zizek rejects this necessity in (human) nature.

Engels in Anti-Duhring:

Quote:
Hegel was the first to state correctly the relation between freedom and necessity. To him, freedom is the appreciation of necessity. 'Necessity is blind only in so far as it is not understood.' Freedom does not consist in the dream of independence from natural laws, but in the knowledge of these laws, and in the possibility this gives of systematically making them work towards definite ends. This holds good in relation both to the laws of external nature and to those which govern the bodily and mental existence of men themselves — two classes of laws which we can separate from each other at most only in thought but not in reality. Freedom of the will therefore means nothing but the capacity to make decisions with knowledge of the subject. Therefore the freer a man's judgment is in relation to a definite question, the greater is the necessity with which the content of this judgment will be determined. . . . Freedom therefore consists in the control over ourselves and over external nature, a control founded on knowledge of natural necessity (Naturnotwendig-keiten)

Would you say this is compatible with Zizek's claim about the non-all status of the onto-genetic base of the subject (or even of the universe as a whole) and the autonomy of the subject from his material base (pardon my poor expression, you know what I mean)? I argue it isn't compatible, especially the part where Engels says 'Freedom does not consist in the dream of independence from natural laws'.

Furthermore, if nature would be indeterminate, there is no determinate ground to make decisions on for a course of action, i.e., there would be no freedom if nature is really indeterminate (non-all) like Zizek claims it is.

Now, it may sound as if Zizek says something similar on freedom being the recognition of necessity (Revol68 earlier also conflated these themes), but in fact Zizek is talking about a completely different thing and I argued against Zizek's point, which entails an elimination of freedom by placing 'choice' in the unconscious atemporal past. For Zizek the choice does not even have to be really made, it's posited (i.e. invented) retroactively, not even by the subject herself (see the example of belonging to a nation). This is the Schellingian act of freedom, and it has been criticized even by the mroe Sartrean-inspired Johnston (in his letter to Zizek).

But overall, as you wrote, TM is indeed very close to Sartre, and Johnston therefor also speaks of 'existential materialism'. In fact the TM's 2 axioms seem to me as nothing but warmed over ideas from 'L'Être et le Néant', see for instance Merleau-Ponty's essay against Sartre:

Quote:
The will believes only in itself, it is its own source.
The revolution cannot come from the worker, and especially not
from the skilled worker. He has a recognized value, he is encumbered
with his talent, he is not ready for the rape of freedom.
He supposes that man exists and that all that is necessary is to
arrange society. Liquidate merit, says Sartre. The only valid
humanism in that of absolute destitution, just as Lagneau's God
was the more acceptable since he had no basis in being. "Man is
yet to be made: he is what man lacks, what is in question for each
one of us, at every instant, what, without ever having been, continually
risks being lost." In other words, man is a duty-to-be
[devoir-etre] and even a pure duty, since it is difficult to see how
man could be man without losing his value. It is the bite of duty
or of nothingness into being, into freedom—the bite that Sartre
once called "mortal," "deadly"—which constitutes the militant.
communistingoodfaith
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Jun 6 2010 01:47

I think what we're looking at, and I'm not trying to be a name-dropper, is the same sort of thing Nietzsche was getting at when he talks about turning every "it was" into a "thus I willed it". And I would agree that freedom is also self delimitation.

And just because a subject has a relative level of autonomy from his material base, this doesn't, in my view, come into conflict with a certain knowledge of necessity, which is the same thing about knowing limits and possibilities, between contingency and necessity. But there can be also a reversal of cause and effect. What is contingent is often thought to be necessary, and what we think is necessary can often turn out to be contingent. I think here there is a dialectic. Remember, outside of a Lacanian atmosphere the subject, for example for Badiou, is something that's a rare occurrence, something that occurs when a mechanism of determination shows a breakdown or weakness. Indeed, Engels says point blank that freedom isn't independence from natural laws, what I'm arguing is that there are no other natural laws governing the genesis of the human being. There is no physical law of dominance of the genetic material or of external nature. We cannot expect to be free from gravity (barring the use of jet engines, etc.). But I don't think the two should be simply conflated and left to their respective poles.

Additionally, I think the point repeatedly argued by both Badiou and Zizek is a full endorsement of the position you question - there IS NO determinate ground for making decisions on a course for action. This notion of wager is already there in Lenin, among other places. However I don't see why that means the subject isn't free. I'd say that's why he's often unbearably free.

I think the notion of unconscious choice makes a bit of sense, to be fair. Take for example an extreme sexual fetish. This isn't something that's chosen, nor is it genetic. It deals with a unique relationship with a sexual object or fetish. This relationship isn't imposed. It is chosen, albeit retroactively when we find ourselves confronted with the objects of our fantasies.

The tension I think between Johnston and Zizek deals with competing understandings of what Lacan does to Schelling. However they seem to be in agreement in terms of death drive, which could be formulated in a Hegelian way as self-sundering and dissolving of all stable positions/states.

I'd be curious to read that Merleau-Ponty if you can point out where I might be able to find it.

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revol68
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Jun 6 2010 11:43

No one take Anti Duhring seriously, it's a piece of shit.

Noa Rodman
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Jun 6 2010 15:18

Never mind Merleau-Ponty.

This christian apologetic article should be a wake-up call 'Brain Plasticity—and the Problem It Poses for Evolution'. For me its just predictable that various obscurantists/philosophers will jump on things like plasticity to propagandize their, in Revol68ians terms, bullshit.

Note that this article mentions how scientific research shows that even lower animals (like rodents) have brain plasticity, a fact which is pretty damaging to Zizek's whole argument, because we agreed that animals don't have consciousness (unless you want to change your opinion on that now).

Plasticity does not prove the corpo-real, i.e., the absence of a "physical law of dominance of the genetic material or of external nature". On the contrary, brain plasticity, just like any other phenomenon, follows the laws of nature, "which govern the bodily and mental existence of men" as Engels put it.
Unless the phenomenon of plasticity is not what is meant by the corp-Real, internally conflicted, non-all status of the onto-genetic base of the subject, the scientific proof for TM does not exist either.