Baboon, you write that
it is obviously simple and mechanical to say that the unions are part of the state and leave it at that. (...) I also agree that workers not in unions lose as well. But, for revolutionaries, why do the unions always "sell-out", why are the leaders always corrupted and eventually promoted through the capitalist system, why does every major strike end in defeat for the majority of workers?
I think it might help to lay out when and where workers lose with unions, that's one of the disconnects I have in this thread. I tried to raise earlier that "why do we lose" is a question that depends in part on who "we" are and what "losing" means. Ed said (if I remember right) that he meant that unions are ineffective forms for improving the terms and conditions of the sale of labor power. I'm not convinced this is true over all, but I am willing to have my mind changed. (It's also worth pointing out that like everyone who shares the basic outlook of libcom I'm not primarily interested in improving the terms of the sale of labor power, we want to end the commodification of labor power.) Let's say that this is true, though.
If it is true then I think it's true in the way that Marx analyses in volume 1 of Capital are true -- Marx talks about tendencies, what capitalist enterprises will do over all most of the time. That there are on some occasions capitalists who keep on unproductive employees temporarily, who fail to reinvest surplus value in order to expand accumulation, and so on, are not actually objections to Marx's analysis, because Marx's analysis is about social averages. Averages are true for large quantities of examples. It is true that on average women get paid less than men and it is also true that some individual women get paid more than many individual men -- saying "I know this one woman who gets paid a lot..." is not an objection to "on average, women get paid less." Likewise, "in some cases workers have temporarily improved conditions via unions" is not an objection to "over all, we lose with the unions."
All of that said, I may be misreading this thread but I take some people here to be saying "no one ever loses with the unions." That's false. There was just a victory here in Minnesota by 12,000 striking nurses. It's a mixed victory, the union rolled over on patient ratios, but it's not just a failure. Likewise for the Republic Windows and Doors occupation, which was orchestrated by the union officers and staff.
It seems to me that the "we lose with the unions" position has got be able to account for those instances when workers *do* win with the unions, some of the time. And, any explanation about why workers lose with the unions has to able to fit with those wins by some workers some of the time.
There has to be a fundamental reason for this that can inform and deepen our analysis because the unions are not going to go away and they are not going to get any better.(...)
There are two examples constantly used to back up the unions "critically": one is that things would be worse without them - a strange materialist argument refuted on its own grounds given that the unions in the UK at the moment are involved in the accelerated attack on the working class. The second is protection; this latter is largely a myth and I would bet for each individual worker "protected" one has been sacked with the complicity of the union. It's the same for access to lawyers - again this is a strange materialist argument but again on its own terms one would do better to avoid union lawyers altogether.
The trade unions have basically been turned into another capitalist racket.
I can't speak to the UK but it seems to me that in the US there were unions who were capitalist rackets for a very long time and workers were able to still win through them before, so I don't think "the unions are integrated into capitalism so therefore they have lost the power to be a vehicle for workers to struggle profitably" is convincing.
) So yeah, it's not public, sorry about that Dev.



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this has nothing to do with whether they're part of the state or not, since as i'm sure you agree newly founded independent unions would suffer the same fate if they played the same role.
I don't see the logic here. If newly formed independent unions are rapidly pushed towards 'working actively against the workers', then they are also rapidly pushed towards functioning as state organs, whether or not they are 'legally' part of the state. The example of Solidarnosc in Poland, which actually ended up running the government, is only a spectacular expression of this.