i don't think the analogy to past 'decadent societies' i.e. imperial rome is necessarily a good one. that would seem more analogous to the decline of the british empire in the face of america, and the possible decline of america in the face of china, as opposed to the decline of capitalist social relations per se.
and i really struggle to see "tendencies towards wars between factions of the ruling class" as more prevalent post-1914, obviously we've had the world wars which followed the fine tradition of intra-european slaughter at a more industrial scale, but since then look at europe/the EU, barely a conflict in sight - after the balkans the nearest thing probably being the IRA/Eta which were hardly slaughters on the scale of the napoleonic wars. there's hardly an unambiguous trend
intensification of struggles between classes
again, has class struggle generally intensified post-1914? it certainly seemed to in 1917-36, but what about since then, surely by your schema we should now be witnessing far more intense struggles than in the period 1917-36, so far into captial's 'decline'?
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Joseph K wrote:
In fact the tendency for the state to intervene more and more in civil life is a characteristic of most major class societies in their decadent epoch, IMO. And no, it's not the only signifier of "irreversible desecent", just one important indicator of it, along with tendencies towards wars between factions of the ruling class; intensification of struggles between classes and decay of the old ideological forms (which, admitedly, covers a rather wide range).
Jaycee wrote: a lot of stuff I agree with.