Did Marx drop the theory of alienation?

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Did Marx drop the theory of alienation at some point? I can't find a clear answer to this: most of the arguments I've seen relate to the 6th thesis on feuerbach. As far as I can see, it's pretty clear that if "the human essence is no abstraction inherent in each single individual" then even if he's not rejected the idea as such he's changed it sufficiently enough that the entire fucking essay I wrote whose argument hinges on the theory of alienation now makes far less sense than it did before. roll eyes

If the species essence is the ensemble of the social relations then does it follow that we can't abstract any notion of species essence from the mode of production within which we're undertaking our analysis? Has anyone made any authorative claims to the contrary? Or does anyone have any suggestions on how I could conveniently gloss over the fact that the cunt changed his mind because I really don't have any desire to rewrite this fucking essay.

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nosos wrote:
Did Marx drop the theory of alienation at some point?

No.

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Well he clearly did to a certain extent in that he dropped his early quasi-hegelianism . . .

Cheers for your answer though. It was most illuminating. Did you enjoy writing it as much as I enjoyed reading it?

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nosos wrote:
Well he clearly did to a certain extent

No, he didn't.

Ed
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Jack: stop being such a fucking ringpiece. Someone has asked a question about Marx, in Introductory Thought no less. The least you could do is give a decent response. Or just keep your mouth shut.

Either way, there's no need to be a cunt.

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Ed wrote:
Jack: stop being such a fucking ringpiece. Someone has asked a question about Marx, in Introductory Thought no less. The least you could do is give a decent response. Or just keep your mouth shut.

Either way, there's no need to be a cunt.

I'm working on a proper responce, actually. I was just correcting the obviously wrong stuff.

But just for a start - there is a lot on alienation in the Grundrisse, which is 10 years after the Thesis.

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Ok, forget about the question of whether he's dropped the idea or changed it: if the species essence is the ensemble of the social relations then does it follow that we can't abstract any notion of species essence from the mode of production within which we're undertaking our analysis?

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YOU BORING CUNTS IT'S ALMOST XMAS!!!!!!

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I HAVE TO FINISH THIS BY THE START OF JANUARY, I'M UP NORTH AND I HAVE NO WEED tongue

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Just say he embraced the concept 'dialectiaclly'. Job done 8)

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Lazlo_Woodbine wrote:
YOU BORING CUNTS IT'S ALMOST XMAS!!!!!!

You're reading it, been on the sherry have you?

You don't know how much this discussion has cheered me up after failing to avoid the last twenty minutes of Strictly Come Dancing earlier.

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lol, i love you all really Mr. T

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the answer you are looking for is that the symbolic order is not a self contained system but always interupted by the real, in it's gaps and contradictions. Therefore whilst there is no essential self and the subject is a product of ideology it is an incomplete, contradictory subject. Our alienation is therefore not from a core self, but rather from the very contradictions and fissures in the social relations that give brith to us as subjects.

And the mode of production is not some forze historical stage, but rather a moment in a process.

anyways i'm tipsy and will get back to this in more detail tommorrow.

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shouldn't this be on the other thread?

The symbolic order is by definition a self-contained system that cannot connect to the real. The real menaces the symbolic order but never engages with it which is why it is the site of horror or abject terror.

The subject is a product of the symbolic order, in a sense, the process of becoming a subject is a process of alienation that isolates the subject from the real. A subject is by definition alienated. This alienation comes before society so alienation from subject being is not the same thing.

Alf
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The article on this link, from our series on communism in the International Review, argues precisely that Marx in the Grundrisse did not drop the concept of alienation, but developed it in the light of a clearer historical method. Hope it's of use, and a merry christmas to all our readers

http//en.internationalism.org/taxonomy/term/338

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Alf

link doesn't seem to work.

Where's Revol, looked like I was going to get a chance to talk about psychoanalytical stuff.

Aw crap, alone with the ICC on christmas Eve, there's not enough beer in the world sad

maybe I should go and wake up my family?

Alf
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Jef - I just tested it and it did work; perhaps you have to wait till Christmas morning for your presents

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Jef Costello wrote:
Aw crap, alone with the ICC on christmas Eve, there's not enough beer in the world sad

maybe I should go and wake up my family?

Hahahahaha grin

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The notion of alienation appears not only in the Paris manuscripts of 1844 but also in Grundrisse and Capital. However it would be a great mistake to take the alienation presented in the later works for the same notion as that in the earlier works. There is indeed a connection, the Feuerbachian ideology which the Paris manuscripts was to a large extent based on is the starting-point of the critique around which Marx builds up his later theory of value in self-motion (capital).

However, it is quite obvious that Marx abandons the notion of human nature or essence as the starting-point of a critique of capital. Alienation in the later works is therefore not to be understood as a concept of a human essence from which humanity has gone astray.

Instead we must understand alienation as a notion deeply embedded in the movement of capital, where human activity becomes a "beast" which is self-presupposative and self-generating, the dialectical and fettering movement of capital. This is however embedded already in the capitalist commodity (see the part on commodity fetishism in the first volume of Capital).

This was perhaps too short, but it's hard to specify with such a broad question.

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Shawarma your last post raises an essential question and it's one that has not been definitely settled by the communist movement. However, the article from the International Review linked in the post at the end of page 1 argues that there is not a qualitative break between the Marx of the 1844 MS and the Marx of Grundrisse. Bordiga also took the view that the concept of 'species being' remains crucial in Marx's later work, and thus that the fundamental definition of alienation contained in the 1844 MS remained valid in his later work. We would be very interested to hear your views on this article.

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cph_shawarma wrote:
Alienation in the later works is therefore not to be understood as a concept of a human essence from which humanity has gone astray.

That's pretty much the impression I was getting. I'm writing a paper about the imminent moral dimension of Marx’s work and the crux of my argument was the centrality of the alienation thesis: in-so-far as it implies a rupture from a human essence which we ought to be at one with, his entire project can be seen to have a very strong if implicit ethical underpinning. However with his later development of the idea – at least in the way I read it with the creative free human essence being collapsed into working class self-activity standing in opposition to capital – it’s much more difficult to argue for an ethical dimension in the same way because the whole thing becomes far more analytic.

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Jack wrote:
I'm working on a proper responce, actually..

Can't wait to see it. I'd hate to think you were just a cock.

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nosos wrote:
Can't wait to see it. I'd hate to think you were just a cock.

I'll write it proper as soon as I get bored of Liberty City Stories.

But basically... Read the stuff in the Grundrisse. That's the same shit he's talking about in 1844, except he's no longer about 25, not in the paradigm of left-hegelianism and writting more as a 'revolutionary' than as an 'academic'.

You're just taking too much of a wanky sociology view of Marx's theory of alienation (which is how it generally gets taught) - however it's not so much he dropped his earlier ideas, but more that he said the same sorta shit but with maturity, and from a more 'Marxist' mindset.

So, as I said, he didn't drop it.

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Quote:
I'm writing a paper about the imminent moral dimension of Marx’s work

Do you mean immanent? (as in, indwelling and self-contained, as opposed to just about to happen). Cause if so, I reckon that's a really important point about Marx's moral statements... capitalism creates its own moral quandries; Marx writes somewhere (can't remember where), about how the bourgeoise family unit is produced by capitalism (for the reproduction of bourgeoise labour power). However, so are the working class women who need to get money by prostitution, which complete the circumstances for the transgression of the bounds set by the family unit.

This is to say, capitalism makes its own supposed morality unsustainable and incoherent. We see this today in, for example, the public standards which capitalist states need to pretend to adhere to (a vague notion of human equality, say), in order to maintain a quiescent populace, and the occasional rude awakening when the real social relations are exposed.

This means that Marx doesn't need to talk about morality as an immutable abstract universal in order to make moral criticisms; the criticism is produced immanently and dialectically within a particular set of historical circumstances.

I made a post on alienation on the other thread just now, which is kinda relevant. Here it is. I suppose that social relations will be sufficiently similar through epochs to give some consistency to species essence, and thus some historically constant moral values...?

p.s. Alf: I don't know much about the ICC, but the use of 'We' makes you sound like the borg!

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Alf: I don't see how one can argue that there isn't a qualitative break (or several, actually) in Marx's thought. This is not an affectionate statement, but it comes down to the fact that there was actual development in Marx. There are breaks from his Feuerbachian period, from his Manifesto-period and even in Grundrisse there are certain qualitative breaks in the analysis of capital.

I like some of Bordiga's work (definitely Murdering the Dead on Antagonism Press and some other texts which I have translated/am translating to Swedish), however to ideologise his thought would be a mistake as big as identifying Marx's concepts pre-Grundrisse and post-Grundrisse. Of course we shouldn't discard all of the "young Marx", those were the roots of his theory, but the problematic of the Feuerbachian Marx is entirely different from the problematic of Capital, therefore we cannot equate notions in the 1844 manuscripts with notions in Capital without falling into either eclecticism or some deterministic notion where the seeds were already planted in the early manuscripts with an entirely determined end result (ie. the Manuscripts were Capital in a rudimentary form, which I would say is nonsense).

Jack: As I have argued there is an actual difference in the notions of a "species-being" which has lost its way (1844 type of alienation) and the notion of an objectified structure which dialectically imposes itself on the humans which created it (Grundrisse/Capital type of alienation). They are not the same notions, but their names are alike, since Marx took his transhistorical and ideological notions and from a critique of those exact notions he proposed a historical analysis of the self-movement of capital.

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cph_shawarma wrote:
They are not the same notions, but their names are alike, since Marx took his transhistorical and ideological notions and from a critique of those exact notions he proposed a historical analysis of the self-movement of capital.

I dunno, I think once you get past his wanky left-Hegelian rhetoric of 1844, it's pretty much the same thing - not exactly the same, 'cause it is a different framework, but it's still the same basic conception. You can't abandon the Manuscripts to wanky sociology academics!

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Jack wrote:
I dunno, I think once you get past his wanky left-Hegelian rhetoric of 1844, it's pretty much the same thing - not exactly the same, 'cause it is a different framework, but it's still the same basic conception. You can't abandon the Manuscripts to wanky sociology academics!

Of course we can't abandon the 1844 manuscripts to sociology academics, but we need to historicise its actual meaning and the problematic (framework as you would put it) in which it was written and see that there is a significant difference, a break, rather than just a pre-determined evolutionary process. There are of course parts of the Manuscripts which are valuable, but they must still be put in context and worked into our problematic (and thereby often radically altered). The fact that the large difference is the transhistorical/historical aspect of the notion makes the notions qualitatively different, even if they bear some resemblance.

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Shawarma – to clarify on ‘qualitative breaks’ in Marx’s thought between 1844 and the 1850s. Of course there is a real development and evolution in Marx’s thought on questions such as alienation, above all because he was able in the later works to situate the concept in a much clearer historical framework. Thus, in the Grundrisse, he defines capitalism as the last in a series of antagonistic modes of production, and thus wage labour as the ‘highest point’ of alienation; but at the same time he presents it as a form which for the first time in history lays the foundations for the super-session of alienation.

But in the 1844 MS alienation is already located in the labour process, not in the sphere of consciousness alone. And the non-alienated productive activity which Marx describes so eloquently in 1844 is re-stated again and again in his later work.

In this sense, what Bordiga, Lukacs and others drew out of the early Marx is that the ‘qualitative leap’ from the standpoint of radical bourgeois philosophy to a proletarian and materialist position is already discernable from 1843-4 onwards.

Posi and Jack – I agree with most of what you have written, both on this thread and the one about species being, which is essentially the same discussion and should perhaps be merged. But Posi’s statement that my use of ‘we’ makes us (or me) sound like the bourgeoisie makes no sense to me. What is this fear of ‘we’? In the Theses on Feuerbach Marx defines his starting point as that of ‘socialised humanity’; in the German Ideology he disposed of Stirner’s ‘autonomous’ ego; and all his life he fought for the formation of revolutionary organisations within the working class. So yes we - myself and my comrades in the ICC – would be interested to receive comments on an article which sees itself not as the last word on the subject but as a contribution to a very complex debate, one which the revolutionary movement is only just beginning to take up again after many years in which it has been left to what Jack calls the ‘wanky sociologists’.

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Alf: He said Borg (as in Star Trek), not bourgeois. I'll make a longer reply later since I'm too tired right now, but I can shortly say that I still disagree with your position.

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Alf wrote:
But Posi’s statement that my use of ‘we’ makes us (or me) sound like the bourgeoisie makes no sense to me.

Alf,

I see where you're coming from on this, but Posi wasn't saying your use of "we" made you sound like the bourgeoisie, but the Borg, the robotic collective in Star trek who, while physically autonomous, are all controlled by their collective mind. And are always presented as a bit on the sinister side. I suspect it was meant humourously wink

Regards,

martin

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Thanks to the last two posts for the clarification. I was probably being oversensitive due to previous criticisms of the ICC. I kind of kept up with Star Trek in the Kirk era, but it started getting too complicated after that.

The question of collective organisation - of revolutionaries speaking with a common voice - is obviously important, but it's not the focus of this thread.