So how does the amount spent on wages remain constant with the workday being extended? Would this not just appear as additional labour performed for free or a reduction in wages?
For example if an 8-hour workday consisting of 4 hours necessary and 4 hours surplus labour,
80c + 5v + 5s
is extended to a 12-hour workday, now with 4 additional surplus-labour hours (production of absolute surplus-value),
80c + 5v + 10s
how does the amount spent on wages remain constant here? I'm guessing this might be answered somewhere in vol. 1. The relevant passage is this:
The increase of absolute surplus-value, or the prolongation of surplus-labour, and thus of the working-day, while the variable capital remains the same and thus employs the same number of labourers at the same nominal wages [...]
I suppose if wages aren't
I suppose if wages aren't based on hours worked (maybe something like $5 for every week of work; not sure how remuneration of workers in 19th century England was done) then an extension of the workday could occur, with the same expenditure on wages, without it appearing to workers they are performing additional labour for free.
Edit, so yes, it's in chapter 20 of vol. 1. Cleaver explains it well here I think:
Cleaver
...
Cleaver
etc.
I see, that clears it all up!
I see, that clears it all up!
woa, Very detailed
woa, Very detailed calculation